AFMC ENTRANCE EXAMINATION

ARMED FORCES MEDICAL COLLEGE (AFMC)

PUNE-411040

ADMISSION TO MBBS COURSE -2012

Armed Forces Medical College (AFMC) Pune, MBBS

Entrance examination will be conducted on 06 May

2012 for entry into MBBS course commencing from

01 Aug 2012. 130 candidates (including maximum of

25 girls) will be selected for admission.

THIS YEAR THE APPLICATION PROCESS WILL BE

COMPLETELY ONLINE.

Prospectus including application form will ONLY be

available online and the prospective candidates must

have a valid e-mail id. Detailed modalities for the

application process will be available on this website

www.afmc.nic.in soon.

AFMC ENTRANCE EXAMINATION – 2011 CUT OFF MARKS

Tthe Following is intimated :

POST WRITTEN EXAM

CUTOFF MARKS OF CANDIDATES CALLED FOR INTERVIEW AT AFMC PUNE

BOYS – 133.75/200

GIRLS – 146.75/200

POST INTERVIEW

CUT OFF MARKS OF THE GENERAL CANDIDATES FINAL INTERVIEW MARKS

BOYS – 159.50/250 (PLACED AT BOYS W/L - 93)

GIRLS – 168.75/250 (PLACED AT GIRLS W/L - 24)

The college conducts Under Graduate course sanctioned vide Govt. of India Ministry of Defence letter no. 11984/DGAFMS/DG-3(B)/9718/D (Med) dated 04 July 1962

Admission Procedure:

The course commences in the month of August. Advertisements for recruitment appear in the leading news papers of the country in the month of December every year, for MBBS course. Candidates are required to submit their application forms in the prescribed format, along with other necessary documents mentioned therein.

The AFMC is affiliated to Maharashtra University of Health Science, Nashik and is recognised by the Medical Council of India.

Admission to MBBS course is based on written examination. The written examination is held on 1st Sunday of May. Successful candidates are called for interview in June for the courses starting in July. Admission is subject to medical fitness.

PROSPECTUS AVAILABILITY:

Prospectus and forms for entrance will be available online this year . Please look for updates regularly.

Course Duration:

The duration of MBBS course is four and a half year followed by internship of one year.

Service Liability:

Students have compulsory liability to serve as Commisioned Officers in the Armed Forces Medical Services. The offer of the type of commission will depend on the vacancies available. The candidates' parents/guardians are required to sign a bond agreement at the time of admission.

ELIGIBILITY AND QUALIFICATIONS TO APPEAR IN THE ENTRANCE EXAMINATION GENERAL:

A candidate seeking admission to the MBBS course is eligible to take the entrance examination if he/she fulfills the following criteria:

• A candidate should be a citizen of India or be a subject of Nepal or Bhutan or a person of Indian origin migrated from Pakistan or any other foreign country with the intention of permanently settling in India.
• Must be unmarried. Marrying during the course is not permitted.
• Should be medically fit as per prescribed standards by the Govt. of India, Ministry of Defence
• Must have attained the age of 17yrs on 31st Dec of the year of application, but must not have attained the age of 22 years on that date(Not more than 24 years in case of candidates who have passed or are appearing in final B Sc examinations).

Academic Qualifications:

Candidate must have passed all the subjects opted for in the first attempt of the qualifying examinations as a regular candidate with English, Physics, Chemistry and Biology taken simultaneously and securing not less than 60% of the aggregate marks in these 3 science subjects taken together and not less than 50% marks in English and 50% marks in each of the science subjects. They must have also passed an examination in Mathematics of the 10th standard.

Number of Seats:

A total of 130 students (105 boys & 25 girls) will be admitted.

Syllabus For the Examination:

The general standard of the entrance examination will be that of 11th and 12th class under the 10+2 scheme/pre-medical/intermediate science or an equivalent examination of the State Education Board/Indian University

Method of Selection:

• Candidates who are found provisionally eligible as per the criteria of eligibility, will be called at one of the examination centres to appear in the competitive examination on 1st Sunday of May. Issue of admit cards. however does not necessarily mean acceptance of eligibility which will be further scrutinized at subsequent stages of selection.
• The written examination centre will be allotted to candidates depending upon the administrative arrangements for the examination and availability of adequate seating capacity.
• The Roll Number of the candidates who qualify for interview based on the above written examination will be published in the leading newspapers. The college/DGAFMS take no responsibility for any error or omission in the roll numbers published in the newspapers.

Interview of Candidate:

• On the basis of their performance in the written examination selected candidates in order of roll numbers will be called for an interview to be held in the month of June at AFMC, PUNE.
• The exact date of the above interview will be intimidated to the selected candidates. Request for change of date of interview will NOT be entertained. The candidates will be required to produce originals of all certificates/mark sheets at the time of interview. All candidates will produce result or proof of having appeared in the qualifying examination held, at the time of interview (if the result of such examination has not been declared).
• On the basis of the above test and interview two merit lists, one for boys and one for girls, will be drawn up and admissions will be offered only to candidates in accordance with their merit position. Individual letters of admission will be sent only to selected candidates who would be required to join AFMC. The remaining candidates will be on waiting list. The result will be published by the DGAFMS in the newspapers.

SC/ST Candidates:

• Ten seats are reserved for SC/ST candidates provided :
• The SC/ST candidates must qualify in the written examination and come within the zone to be called up for interview.
• They must come within the first 500 in the final combined merit list of boys and girls.

MEDICAL STANDARDS:

• The candidate must be in good physical and mental health and free from any disability likely to interfere with the efficient performance of duty in the Armed Forces.
• Medical examination will be done by a Board of Officers at AFMC Pune, prior to admission to the College. Medical Board will categorize as Fit and Unfit, in accordance with the prescribed standards. Candidates declared as UNFIT are entitled to appeal on payment of a fee of Rs. 40/-. The procedure will be intimated to the concerned candidates by the President of the Medical Board.
• Important physical requirements are enumerated below for guidance:

There should be:

• No serious deformity and mal-developments, scoliosis, spinal bifida and other skeletal deformities.
• No impediment of speech.
• No sign of functional/organic disease of the heart or blood vessels.
• No evidence of pulmonary tuberculosis or previous history of this disease or any other chronic disease of the lungs.
• No evidence of any disease of the digestive system, including any abnormality of the liver or spleen.
• No inguinal hernia or tendency thereto, hydrocoele or definite varicocoele.
• No fistula, piles, disease of the kidneys, disease of the skin.
• No active, latent or congenital STD, history of epilepsy and any mental and psychiatric disorder.
• No squint or any other morbid condition of the eye.
• No active trachoma or Lymph nodes.
• The height and weight requirements will depend upon the age, body build and racial characteristics as per standards laid down for Armed Forces:
  • Girl Standard: In case of female candidates, minimum height of 144 cms and minimum weight of 36kgs is essential.
  • Boys Standards: The male candidates height below 157.5cms (152.5 for Gorkhas, Nepalese and Garhwali, and Assamese) and weight below 39 kgs will not be accepted irrespective of age and other factors.
• There should be minimum 5cms range of chest expansion.
• There should be no ear discharge and no perforation of the eardrum/nasal septum.

Visual Standards:

Minimum color vision standard should be CP-3 (Defective Safe).

Visual Standards	Better eye	Worse eye
Distant Vision (Corrected)	6/6	6/18
Near Vision (Corrected)	N5	N8
Myopia of not more than	-3.5 D	2
Hypermetropia of not more than +3.5 D	+3.5 D	2

Hearing Standard:

The candidate should be able to hear a forced whisper with each ear separately at a distance of 20 feet.

FACILITIES PROVIDED TO THE STUDENTS:

HOSTEL FACILITY: The college is fully residential and residence in the hostel is compulsory for all students with service liability. Separate boys and girls hostels are located in the college campus. The hostel accommodation is free of charge for service liability candidates. If a student is removed from service liability on account of being found medically unfit for commission or on disciplinary/academic grounds he/she will have to make his/her own arrangements for stay.

MESSING FACILITY: All students residing in the hostel are required to join the mess attached to the hostel. Vegetarian and Non-vegetarian food is served in a common combined mess for both boys and girls cadets.

HEALTH & RECREATIONAL FACILITY: 

Students are required to participate in games, sports and gymnastics. Facilities for sports such as cricket, squash, tennis, hockey, football, volleyball, basketball, handball, table tennis and gymnastics are provided free of cost. Facilities for aquatics also exist on nominal payment.There is an open air cinema, membership for which is compulsory. Hindi and English films are screened. Students with service liability are entitled to free outpatient/ inpatient/ dental treatment at all times in any service hospital/dental centre to the extent of medical facilities available locally. Periodical medical examination/ medical board considered necessary will also be carried out free of cost.

SPECIAL CONCESSIONS:

The government provides the following concessions to service liability students (male and female).

• Entitled rations as authorised and subsidised messing.
• Free hostel accommodation and allied services.
• AC 3 Tier railway warrant for journey during vacation from college to home and back.
• First Class/ AC 2 Tier rail Journey on railway warrant after being commissioned.
• A subsidy of Rs.12,000/- per student for purchase of books and equipment during the entire training period. Amount will be issued proportionately during I, II and III MBBS.
• Uniform allowance Rs.6,000/- per student during first year and Rs.1,250/- per year as maintenance allowance in subsequent years.
• Hair Cutting/Hair Cleaning Allowance of Rs.40/- per month per student.
• Stationery allowance of Rs.1000/- per cadet per year.
• Washing allowance Rs.120/- per student per month during the term and Rs.20/- per month during break.

For any further clarifications contact:

Officer-in-Charge Admissions

Admission Cell

Armed Forces Medical College

Sholapur Road, Pune - 411040

Telephone Number: 020 - 26334209,

Fax Number: 020 - 26334236

Bihar Combined Entrance Competitive Examination 2012

The Bihar Combined Entrance Competitive Examinaion for admission in various professional courses in different Engineering colleges, Medical colleges, Agriculture collegesunder the Govt.of Bihar is being conducted by Bihar Combined Entrance Cometitve Examination Board as constituded under the Bihar Combined Entrance Cometitve Examination Act, 1995.

SCHEDULE OF EXAMINATION

Commencement of sale of Application Form from: 27/12/2011

Last date of sale of Application Forms: 25/01/2012

Last date of Receipt of Application Forms: 06/02/2012

Date of Examination (first phase): 22/04/2012

Date of Examination (Second phase): 03/06/2012In the event of any emergency, the BCECE Board may shift the scheduled dates.

Sales Center:

Application Form and prospectus can be obtained from any one of the following sale centres.:

Bhagalpur College of Engineering, Bhagalpur

Muzaffarpur Institute of Technology.Muzaffarpur

Patna Medical College, Patna

Nalanda Medical College, Patna

J.L.N.Medical College, Bhagalpur

Sri Krisn Medical College, Muzaffarpur

A.N.M. Medical College, Gaya

Darbhanga Medical College, Darbhanga

Karyalay, kul sachiv, Rajendra krishi vishvvidyalay, Pusa

Motihari College of Engineering, Motihari

Gaya College of Engineering, Gaya

Darbhanga college of Engineering,Darbhanga

Nalanda College of Engineering, Chandi, Nalanda

Bhihar Bhavan, New Delhi

Karyalay, kul sachiv, Bihar krishi vishvvidyalay, Sabaur

Application Fee:

Subject Group for apperingCategoryTotal Fee

PCB or PCM SC / ST 660/-

For Other Candidates(General/EBC/BC/RCG) 330/-

PCB and PCM SC / ST 660/- and 70/-

For Other Candidates(General/EBC/BC/RCG) 330/- and 35/-

PAyment of Application fee by Bank Draft will be accepted.

Requisite Application fees is to be paid on any nationalised Bank at Patna.

The Bank Draft must be in favour of "Controller of Examination, B.C.E.C.E. Board (BCECE)"

Syllabus : Biology

• DIVERSITY IN LIVING WORLD
• STRUCTURAL ORGANISATION IN ANIMALS AND PLANTS
• CELL:STRUCTURE AND FUNCTION
• PLANT PHYSIOLOGY
• HUMAN PHYSIOLOGY
  • Sexual Reproduction
• GENETICS AND EVOLUTION
• BIOLOGY AND HUMAN WELFARE
• BIOTECHNOLOGY AND ITS APPLICATIONS
• ECOLOGY & ENVIRONMENT

Date of AIPMT-2012

As per communication received from Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India regarding seeking permission from the Hon’ble Supreme Court to allow introduction of NEET for Under Graduate Medical Courses from the academic year 2013-14 instead of 2012-13, the Central Board of Secondary Education would now conduct the All India Pre-Medical/ Pre-Dental Entrance Examination only for the 15% all India quota seats as per following schedule:

AIPMT Preliminary Examination - 1st April, 2012 (Sunday)

AIPMT Final Examination - 13th May, 2012 (Sunday)

The eligibility conditions, centre cities, syllabus, pattern, etc. will remain the similar to AIPMT 2011 Examination for which the information is already available on website www.aipmt.nic.in.

The schedule for the submission of application forms would be shortly communicated.

Theories of Evolution

1. Mention 2 main conditions which formed the basis of Lamarckian evolution.                                               Ans: The use and disuse of parts and the inheritance of acquired characters
2. Name the scientists who disproved Lamarck's theory.                                                                               Ans: Weismann, a German zoologist
3. Mention 2 main conditions on which Darwin's Concept of organic evolution is based.                                 Ans: Struggle for existence and survival of the fittest
4. Who gave the theory of evolution by natural selection?                                                                                                         Ans: Charles Darwin and Alfred Russell Wallace
5. Who wrote the famous book "Origin of Species"?                                                                                    Ans: Charles Darwin (1859)
6. Mention 1 necessary condition  for evolution by natural selection.                                                                 Ans: Genetic Variability
7. Give 2 examples of operation of natural selection.                                                                                 Ans: Industrial melanism and resistance to DDT in mosquitoes
8. Which principal has been used to obtain present day varieties of cultivated plants and breeds of domesticated animals?                                                                                                                           Ans: Artificial selection
9. What is the basis of artificial selection?                                                                                                  Ans: Isolation and selective breeding of organisms showing characteristics which are useful to humans.
10. Who coined the term mutation?                                                                                                             Ans: Hugo de Vries

Environment & Its Factor

 

(according to http://en.wikipedia.org) 

"The environment is the combined modeling of the physical environment and the biological life forms within the environment, and includes all variables, parameters as well as conditions and modes inside the Earth's biosphere. Environmental science is the study of the interactions within the biophysical environment. Part of this scientific discipline is the investigation of the effect of human activity on the environment. Ecology, a sub-discipline of biology and a part of environmental sciences, is often mistaken as a study of human induced effects on the environment."

Environmental factors that influence all living thing can be grouped under 3 headings:

1. Climatic factors that include the general features such as seasonal variations, light, temperature, rainfall, humidity and wind.
2. Topographic factors that include the general nature of geological strata such as altitude, slope, exposure to sun etc and process like erosion, deposition etc.
3. Edaphic factors that include soil, its physical and chemical constitution, water-content, aeration etc

Climatic factors 

LIGHT: As the form of energy used during photosynthesis, light is considered as the most important factor determining the growth of the plants and the development of vegetation. Light plays the important roles in the following ways:

• It is necessary for the formation of chlorophyll .
• It regulates the stomatal movements.
• It affects transpirational, photosynthetic and growth rates.
• It influences photoperiodism. 

TEMPERATURE: There is no function in a living organism that is not affected by temperatures. All the chemical process of metabolism and many physical process such as diffusion, precipitation etc are conditioned by temperature. Effects of temperature upon plant distribution can also be noticed as one ascends up a mountain. It is common knowledge that as the altitude increases, temperature falls. It is not therefore uncommon for one to encounter typical temperate climate vegetation in the heart of a tropical area, at higher altitudes.

Blood Clotting

When blood is shed, the platelets disintegrate and liberate thromboplastin. Certain amount of thromboplastin is also derived from the damaged tissues of the injured locality. Thromboplastin converts prothrombin into thrombin with the help of calcium ions and thrombin interacts with fibrinogen forming fibrin. This is the clot. Clotting of blood is also known as the coagulation of blood.

Normally,

Prothrombin+Calcium ions+Fibrinogen----------------->Nil

After shedding of blood:

Thromboplastin + Prothrombin + Calcium ions--------------------------> Thrombin

Thrombin + Fibrinogen-------------------> Fibrin (Clot)

Since 1940, research work has indicated that the clotting mechanisms is a complex process. In 1954 an international committee was established. The committee suggested an international system of nomenclature time to time with the appearance of new factors.There are 13 clotting factors i.e I to XIII. 

Marking Schemes

Who are the markers of answer scripts?

 How do they mark the answer scripts? 

How can it be ensured that marking is fair, objective and reliable? 

Questions of these types naturally arise in the  minds of candidates appearing in the public examination. These questions are equally pertinent to the teachers who are not adequately exposed to the CBSE system of marking. 

Answer Scripts marking is a specialised job. It is assigned to teachers-PGTs for Class XII and

TGTs for Class X who are in direct touch with the subject and have a minimum of 3 years experience

of teaching the subject at that level. Appointment of examiners is made in accordance with the welldefined norms. Markers examine scripts with the help of detailed guidelines called the 'Marking Schemes'.

 To Students :

--- Study each question carefully, comprehend them and write down the main points of the

answer and note down their difficulties for clarification.

--- Examine a question in conjunction with the Marking Scheme and find out the proximity of

the answer to that suggested in the Marking Scheme.

--- We will feel motivated if this publication is commented upon by practitioners in the context

of its impact on their teaching learning strategies. Contribution of the experts and the officials

of the Board in bringing out this document is gratefully acknowledged

General Instructions :

The Marking Scheme and mechanics of marking

1 In the marking scheme the marking points are separated by commas, one oblique line

(/) indicates acceptable alternative, two obliques (//) indicate complete acceptable alternative

set of marking points.

2. Any words/phrases given within brackets do not have marks.

3. Allow spelling mistakes unless the misspelt word has another biological meaning.  Ignore

plurals unless otherwise stated in the marking scheme.

4. In any question exclusively on diagram no marks on any description.  But in questions on

descriptions, same value points may be marked on the diagrams as a subsitute.

5. All awarded marks are to be written in the left hand margin at the end of the question or

its part.

6. Place a tick ( ) in red directly on the key/operative term or idea provided if it is in correct

context. Place “Half-tick” ½ wherever there is ½ mark in the marking scheme.  (Do not

place tick indiscriminately just to show that you have read the answer).

7. If no marks are awarded to any part or question put a cross (×) at incorrect value portion

and mark it zero (in words only).

8. Add up ticks or the half ticks for a part of the question, do the calculation if any, and write

the part total or the question total in the left hand margin.

9. Add part totals of the question and write the question total at the end.  Count all the ticks

for the entire question as a recheck and draw a circle around the question total to confirm

correct addition.

10. If parts have been attempted at different places do the totalling at the end of the part

attempted last.

11. If any extra part is attempted or any question is reattempted, score out the last one and

write “extra”.

12. In questions where only a certain number of items are asked evaluate only that many

numbers in sequence as is asked ignoring all the extra ones even if otherwise correct.

13. Transcribe the marks on the cover page.  Add up question totals.  Recheck the script total

by adding up circled marks in the script.

14. Points/answer given in brackets in marking scheme are not so important and may be

ignored for marking.

QUESTION PAPER CODE 57/1/1

EXPECTED ANSWERS/VALUE POINTS

     SECTION A

Q.Nos. 1 - 8 are of one mark each.

1. A bilobed, dithecous anther has 100 microspore mother cells per microsporangium. How

many male gametophytes this anther can produce ?

Ans. 1600

[1 mark]

2. Mention two functions of the codon AUG .

Ans. Initiator Codon, codes for Methionine = ½ + ½

[1 mark]

3. Name the scientist who disproved spontaneous generation theory.

Ans. Louis Pasteur (If only Pasteur = ½)

[1 mark]

4. What is it that prevents a child to suffer from a disease he/she is vaccinated against ? Give

one reason.

Ans. Antibodies produced , kills pathogen / destroys antigen

// provides immunity against pathogen = ½ + ½

[1 mark]

5. Why is the enzyme cellulase used for isolating genetic material from plant cells but not for

animal cells ?

Ans. Animal cells do not have cellulose cell walls; (hence do not need the enzyme) , plant cell have

cellulose in their cell wall; (hence need enzyme to break it down) = ½ + ½

[1 mark]

6. Name a molecular diagnostic technique to detect the presence of a pathogen in its early

stage of infection.

Ans. Recombinant DNA technology / Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) / ELISA  Any one = 1

[1 mark]

7. If 8 individuals in a laboratory population of 80 fruitflies died in a week, then what would be

the death rate for population for the said period ?

Ans. 0.1 , individuals per fruitfly per week = ½ + ½

[1 mark]

8. Mention one positive and one negative application of amniocentesis .

Ans. To detect genetic disorder, may lead to (illegal) female foeticide  = ½ + ½

[1 mark]

SECTION B

Q. Nos. 9 - 18 are of two marks each

9. A moss plant produces a large number of antherozoids but relatively only a few egg cells.

Why ?

Ans. Eggs are stationary / non-motile within the plant body /  antherozoids carried by water ,  lost in

transit  = ½ × 4

[ 2 marks]

10. Mention the reasons for difference in ploidy of zygote and primary endosperm nucleus in

an angiosperm.

Ans. Zygote formed by the fusion of male gamete (n) and egg cell (n) , hence diploid (2n) = ½ + ½

Primary endosperm nucleus formed by the fusion of two polar nuclei / secondary nucleus (n + n) and

male gamete (n) , hence triploid  (3n) = ½ +  ½

[1 + 1 = 2 marks]

11. How does an electrostatic precipitator work to remove particulate pollutants released from

the thermal power plants ?

Ans. Electrode wires at several thousand volts produce a corona that releases electrons , electrons attach

to dust particles , (dust particles) become negatively charged , are attracted to collecting plates , low

velocity of air help settling of dust  =  ½ × 4

[2 marks]

12. Name the type of food chains responsible for the flow of larger fraction of energy in

an aquatic and a terrestrial ecosystem respectively. Mention one difference between the

two food chains.

Ans. Aquatic ecosystem - Grazing Food Chain / GFC = ½

Terrestrial ecosystem - Detritus Food Chain / DFC = ½

Difference : GFC begins with phytoplanktons / producers whereas DFC begins with dead organisms

/ detritus = 1

[1 + 1 = 2 marks]

13. How does a test-cross help in identifying the genotype of the organism ? Explain.

Ans. Cross between an organism with unknown genotype (expressing dominant trait) , and an organism

with recessive trait (homozygous) = ½ +  ½

If all offsprings show dominant trait the organism is homozygous (dominant) , if half organisms show

dominant and half recessive then the organism is heterozygous (dominant) = ½  + ½

[1 + 1 = 2 marks]2 1 9

14. Name the host and the site where the following occur in the life-cycle of a malarial parasite:

(a) Formation of gametocytes

(b) Fusion of gametocytes

Ans. (a) Human , RBC = ½ + ½

(b) Female Anopheles (mosquito) , intestine = ½ + ½

[1 + 1 = 2 marks]

15. Honey collection improves when beehives are kept in crop-fields during flowering season.

Explain.

Ans. Bees visit flowers for collecting nectar / pollen (for honey) , more the number of flowers (during

flowering season) larger is the nectar / pollen collection (hence more honey production) = 1 + 1

[2 marks]

OR

How does addition of a small amount of curd to fresh milk help in formation of curd? Mention

a nutritional quality that gets added to the curd.

Inoculum or starter contains (millions) of LAB which multiply at a suitable temperature , produce

acids / lactic acid that coagulates , and partially digests the milk proteins thus converting milk to curd,

it also improves its nutritional quality (of milk) by increasing vitamin B12 

 = ½ × 4

[2 marks]

16. Why  is  the  introduction  of  genetically  engineered  lymphocytes  into  an  ADA deficiency

patient not a permanent cure ? Suggest a possible permanent cure.

Ans. Lymphocytes not immortal / short lived , hence patient requires periodic infusion of such genetically

engineered lymphocytes , however if a gene producing ADA is isolated from marrow cells , and

introduced into the cells at early embryonic stages it could be a permanent cure = ½ × 4

[2 marks]

17. How does the floral pattern of Mediterranean orchid Ophrys  guarantee cross pollination?

Ans. One petal of Ophrys resembles the female of a bee, male bees are attracted to it / perceives it as

female , pseudocopulates , same male bee pseudocopulates with another flower of Ophrys and

pollination is completed = ½ × 4

[2 marks]

18. In the biosphere immense biological diversity exists at all levels of biological organisation.

Explain any two levels of biodiversity.

Ans. (i) Genetic diversity: A single species might show high diversity at the genetic level over its

distributional range. The genetic variation shown by the medicinal plant Rauwolfia vomitoria2 2 0

growing in different Himalayan ranges might be in terms of the potency and concentration of

the active chemical (reserpine) that the plant produces. India has more than 50000 genetically

different strains of rice and 1000 varieties of mango / any other example explained

(ii) Species diversity: The diversity at the species level. For example, the Western Ghats have a

greater amphibian species diversity than the Eastern Ghats.

(iii) Ecological diversity: At the ecosystem level, India, for instance, with its deserts / rain forests

/ mangroves / coral reefs / wetlands / estuaries / and alpine meadows has a greater ecosystem

diversity than a Scandinavian country like Norway  (Any two) = 1 + 1

[2 marks]